Assignment: What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?

Assignment: What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?

1. A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of hirsutism and irregular menses. She describes irregular and infrequent menses (five or six per year) since menarche at 12 years of age. She began to develop dark, coarse facial hair when she was 14 years of age, but her parents did not seek treatment or medical opinion at that time. The symptoms worsened after she gained weight in college. She got married 3 years ago and has been trying to get pregnant for the last 2 years without success. Height 66 inches and weight 198. BMI 32 kg.m2. Moderate hirsutism without virilization noted. Laboratory data reveal CMP within normal limits (WNL), CBC with manual differential (WNL), TSH 0.9 IU/L SI units (normal 0.4-4.0 IU/L SI units), a total testosterone of 65 ng/dl (normal 2.4-47 ng/dl), and glycated hemoglobin level of 6.1% (normal value ≤5.6%). Based on this information, the APRN diagnoses the patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) and refers her to the Women’s Health APRN for further workup and management.
Question 1 of 2:
What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?

1 points
QUESTION 2
1. A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of hirsutism and irregular menses. She describes irregular and infrequent menses (five or six per year) since menarche at 12 years of age. She began to develop dark, coarse facial hair when she was 14 years of age, but her parents did not seek treatment or medical opinion at that time. The symptoms worsened after she gained weight in college. She got married 3 years ago and has been trying to get pregnant for the last 2 years without success. Height 66 inches and weight 198. BMI 32 kg.m2. Moderate hirsutism without virilization noted. Laboratory data reveal CMP within normal limits (WNL), CBC with manual differential (WNL), TSH 0.9 IU/L SI units (normal 0.4-4.0 IU/L SI units), a total testosterone of 65 ng/dl (normal 2.4-47 ng/dl), and glycated hemoglobin level of 6.1% (normal value ≤5.6%). Based on this information, the APRN diagnoses the patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) and refers her to the Women’s Health APRN for further workup and management. Assignment: What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?
Question 2 of 2:

How does PCOS affect a woman’s fertility or infertility?

1 points
QUESTION 3
1. A 20-year-old female college student presents to the Student Health Clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain, foul smelling vaginal discharge, and fever and chills for the past 4 days. She denies nausea, vomiting, or difficulties with defecation. Last bowel movement this morning and was normal for her. Nothing has helped with the pain despite taking ibuprofen 200 mg orally several times a day. She describes the pain as sharp and localizes the pain to her lower abdomen. Past medical history noncontributory. GYN/Social history + for having had unprotected sex while at a fraternity party. Physical exam: thin, Ill appearing anxious looking white female who is moving around on the exam table and unable to find a comfortable position. Temperature 101.6F orally, pulse 120, respirations 22 and regular. Review of systems negative except for chief complaint. Focused assessment of abdomen demonstrated moderate pain to palpation left and right lower quadrants. Upper quadrants soft and non-tender. Bowel sounds diminished in bilateral lower quadrants. Pelvic exam demonstrated + adnexal tenderness, + cervical motion tenderness and copious amounts of greenish thick secretions. The APRN diagnoses the patient as having pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

Question:

What is the pathophysiology of PID?

1 points
QUESTION 4
1. A 27-year-old male comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of a “sore on my penis” that has been there for 3 days. He says it burns and leaked a little fluid. He denies any other symptoms. Past medical history noncontributory. Social history: works as a bartender and he states he often “hooks up” with some of the patrons, both male and female after work. He does not always use condoms. Physical exam within normal limits except for a lesion on the lateral side of the penis adjacent to the glans. The area is indurated with a small round raised lesion. The APRN orders laboratory tests, but feels the patient has syphilis.

Question:

Describe the 4 stages of syphilis.

Assignment: What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?

1 points
QUESTION 5
1. A 19-year-old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of “fluid filled bumps” and intense pruritis of her vulva. She states these symptoms have been present for about 10 days, but she thought she had a yeast infection. She self-medicated with over the counter (OTC) metronidazole (Flagyl™) intravaginally but the symptoms got worse. No other complaints except for fatigue out of proportion to her activity level. Past medical history noncontributory. Social history: sexually active with several men and did forget to use a condom during one sexual encounter. Physical exam negative except for pelvic exam which revealed multiple fluid filled (vesicular) lesions on the vulva and introitus. Positive lymph nodes in inguinal areas. The APRN diagnoses the patient with herpes simplex virus-type 2 known as genital herpes.

Question:

What is the pathophysiology of HSV-2?

1 points
QUESTION 6
1. A 27-year-old male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of a gradual onset of scrotal pain and swelling of the left testicle that started 2 days ago. The pain has gotten progressively worse over the last 12 hours and he now complains of left flank pain. He complains of dysuria, frequency, and urgency with urination. He states his urine smells funny. He denies nausea, vomiting, but admits to urethral discharge just prior to the start of his severe symptoms. He denies any recent heavy lifting or straining for bowel movements. He says the only thing that makes the pain better is if he sits in his recliner and elevates his scrotum on a small pillow. Past medical history negative. Social history + for sexual activity only with his wife of 3 years. Physical exam reveals red, swollen left testicle that is very tender to touch. There is positive left inguinal adenopathy. Clean catch urinalysis in the clinic + for 3+ bacteria. The APRN diagnoses the patient with epididymitis.

Question:

Discuss how bacteria in the urine causes epididymitis.

1 points
QUESTION 7
1. A 42-year-old male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of fever, chills, malaise, arthralgias, dysuria, urinary frequency, low back pain, perineal, and suprapubic pain. He says he feels like he can’t fully empty his bladder when he voids. He states these symptoms came on suddenly about 12 hours ago and have gotten worse. He noticed some blood in his urine the last time he voided. He tried to have a bowel movement several hours ago but could not empty his bowel due to pain. Past medical and social history noncontributory. Physical exam reveals an ill appearing male. Temperature 101.8 F, pulse 122, respirations 20, BP 108/68. Exam unremarkable apart from left costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. Rectal exam difficult due to enlarged and extremely painful prostate. Complete blood count revealed an elevated white blood cell count, elevated C-reactive protein and elevated sedimentation rate. Urine dip in the clinic + for 2+ bacteria.

Question:

Explain the differences between acute bacterial prostatitis and nonbacterial prostatitis.

Assignment: What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?

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1 points
QUESTION 8
1. A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of pelvic pain, excessive menstrual bleeding, dyspareunia, and inability to become pregnant after 18 months of unprotected sex with her husband. She states she was told she had endometrioses after a high school physical exam, but no doctor or nurse practitioner ever mentioned it again, so she thought it had gone away. She has no other complaints and says she wants to have a family. Past medical history noncontributory except for possible endometriosis as a teenager. Social history negative for tobacco, drugs or alcohol. The physical exam is negative except for the pelvic exam which demonstrated pain on light and deep palpation of the uterus. The APRN believes that the patient does have endometriosis and orders appropriate laboratory and radiological tests. The diagnostics come back highly suggestive of endometriosis.